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re: Should illegal immigrants be counted on the census?

Posted on 6/12/19 at 2:38 pm to
Posted by TrueTiger
Chicken's most valuable
Member since Sep 2004
67632 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 2:38 pm to
Count them but subtract them for representative and apportionment purposes.
Posted by jchamil
Member since Nov 2009
16453 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 2:38 pm to
quote:

The Constitution.


Go on
Posted by TBoy
Kalamazoo
Member since Dec 2007
23641 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 2:39 pm to
quote:

Should illegal immigrants be counted on the census at all?


What does the Constitution say?
Posted by Sidicous
Middle of Nowhere
Member since Aug 2015
17120 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 2:39 pm to
Count them, then subtract that number from the Dem votes cast in every election.
Posted by NoHoTiger
So many to kill, so little time
Member since Nov 2006
45720 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 2:39 pm to
No, they should not be counted on the census. Draw lines based on where citizens live.
Posted by Vecchio Cane
Ivory Tower
Member since Jul 2016
17716 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 2:40 pm to
Yes, they should be counted. As Illegals.
Posted by PanhandleTigah
Florida Freedom Zone
Member since May 2008
9405 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 2:41 pm to
quote:

Should illegal immigrants be counted on the census at all? Or should they be counted as "undocumented"?
Should not be counted. Census is for legal citizens.

quote:

When we redistrict in 2021, should the decisions be made on where US citizens live or where all people live? If so, why?
US citizens live. State electoral votes and house representation is based on population. States that freely invite illegals to live there should not be rewarded with more influence.

The census and elections are for LEGAL citizens. This is not difficult.
Posted by AggieHank86
Texas
Member since Sep 2013
42941 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 2:44 pm to
quote:

Thus districts are carved out to represent citizens, not total population.
If this were the case, the southern half of the United States would never get ratified the Constitution in 1789.

Your proposal certainly makes sense, but it is not what they wrote.
This post was edited on 6/12/19 at 2:46 pm
Posted by PaperTiger
Ruston, LA
Member since Feb 2015
22932 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 2:45 pm to
Id do it just to know how many actual illegal immigrants are here
Posted by TrueTiger
Chicken's most valuable
Member since Sep 2004
67632 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 2:48 pm to
quote:

If this were the case, the southern half of the United States would never get ratified the Constitution in 1789.


Well frick.

That means they never had to do that secession thing in the first place.

Posted by TBoy
Kalamazoo
Member since Dec 2007
23641 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 3:01 pm to
Article I, Section 2, Clause 3 of the United States Constitution states, in pertinent part:
quote:

Representatives and direct Taxes shall be apportioned among the several States which may be included within this Union, according to their respective Numbers, which shall be determined by adding to the whole Number of free Persons, including those bound to Service for a Term of Years, and excluding Indians not taxed, three fifths of all other Persons. The actual Enumeration shall be made within three Years after the first Meeting of the Congress of the United States, and within every subsequent Term of ten Years, in such Manner as they shall by Law direct.


The Constitution requires the counting of all "free persons." The drafters could have said "citizens." The drafters certainly knew the difference. They made a distinction between "free persons" and persons who were not free (meaning slaves) but they did not make a distinction between citizens and persons who reside here who are not citizens. There is no rational argument that a non-status alien living within a state is not a "free person."

This right wing argument that the census is or should
be restricted to "citizens" is typical right wing hogwash. There is absolutely no basis whatsoever for it. The Constitution says what it says.
Posted by Bard
Definitely NOT an admin
Member since Oct 2008
51461 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 3:02 pm to
quote:

If this were the case, the southern half of the United States would never get ratified the Constitution in 1789.



The original intent was representation of US citizens. The 3/5 rule was a compromise with southern states in order to avoid onerous taxation). This was amended out with the 2nd section of the 14th Amendment (and thus why I mentioned it instead of trying an arguement of original-intent-despite-3/5).
This post was edited on 6/12/19 at 3:07 pm
Posted by ShoeBang
Member since May 2012
19343 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 3:03 pm to
Yes. Right there in the "People to deport" category in the report.

Count every one.
Posted by AggieHank86
Texas
Member since Sep 2013
42941 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 3:05 pm to
quote:

Go on
it really is not complex
quote:

Actual Enumeration. ...

Representatives shall be apportioned among the several States according to their respective numbers, counting the whole number of persons in each State, excluding Indians not taxed.
The word “ Citizen” is not used in the context of any of these statements.

There are hundreds and perhaps thousands of reasons to count everyone. There are certainly valid arguments to be made as to why they should not be included for purposes of apportionment.

We haven’t had an amendment in a while. Propose one.
Posted by TBoy
Kalamazoo
Member since Dec 2007
23641 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 3:05 pm to
quote:

The original intent was representation of US citizens.


No it wasn't and the language provides you with no support whatsoever.
Posted by Bard
Definitely NOT an admin
Member since Oct 2008
51461 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 3:06 pm to
quote:

Article I, Section 2, Clause 3 of the United States Constitution


Which has been amended by the 2nd section of the 14th Amendment as well as the 19th and 26th Amendments.

Posted by FlexDawg
Member since Jan 2018
12812 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 3:06 pm to


Posted by Bard
Definitely NOT an admin
Member since Oct 2008
51461 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 3:07 pm to
quote:

No it wasn't and the language provides you with no support whatsoever.



Except where it specifically says "citizen".
Posted by Tiger on the Rag
Cattle Gap Egypt
Member since Jan 2018
6819 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 3:09 pm to
Yes so we know where they are to get their asses out
Posted by AggieHank86
Texas
Member since Sep 2013
42941 posts
Posted on 6/12/19 at 3:09 pm to
quote:

The Constitution requires the counting of all "free persons." The drafters could have said "citizens." The drafters certainly knew the difference.
I have seen the argument that the drafters intent of the word “Citizen“ and the word “person“ to be synonyms. They are not used as synonyms anywhere in the entire document.

There are certainly places where the constitution is ambiguous. This just is not one of those places. Anyone confused on this issue should recuse himself from all further constitutional discussion.
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