This is settled law...is it not?
Settled law does not always equate to constitutional or correct law.
For instance, the 1st amendment clearly states "Congress shall make no law..." and yet there are laws that prohibit obscenity. And they are enforced.
Is obscenity settled law? Sure. It is enforced with violent fervor? Of course. It is right? No.
I gave the common example of "FIRE"
You shouldn't use that example. The case it originated in was superseded by Brandenburg v. Ohio, and it changed the criteria for limiting speech. (imminent lawless action vs. clear and present danger)
But again, even Brandeburg is wrong because it limits where no limits are allowed.