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Question about a baseball rule

Posted on 6/18/14 at 8:40 pm
Posted by fleaux
section 0
Member since Aug 2012
8741 posts
Posted on 6/18/14 at 8:40 pm
Why does a team in the field have to appeal when they think a runner missed a base?? If an official knows that a player should be out then why does baseball at all levels allow this to happen??
This post was edited on 6/18/14 at 8:41 pm
Posted by KBeezy
Baton Rouge
Member since Dec 2004
13529 posts
Posted on 6/18/14 at 8:41 pm to
Because if he missed the base he isn't just automatically out

You have to do something to get him out
Posted by PurpleAndGold86
Member since Jun 2012
11036 posts
Posted on 6/18/14 at 8:42 pm to
Because on a hit like you just saw in the UT game they wouldn't have made an out even if he missed the bag without throwing the ball to first base. You would still have had to throw the ball to get the force out at first.
Posted by fleaux
section 0
Member since Aug 2012
8741 posts
Posted on 6/18/14 at 8:43 pm to
But if he touches second without touching first wouldnt that be an automatic out?
Posted by Gtothemoney
Da North Shore
Member since Sep 2012
17713 posts
Posted on 6/18/14 at 8:47 pm to
If there are runners on 1st and 2nd and there is a shot into the gap, both runners score, but the runner on 2nd misses 3rd, should he be automatically out bc in essence the runner on 1st actually passes him up on the bases?

I hope that makes sense.
Posted by PrimeTime Money
Houston, Texas, USA
Member since Nov 2012
27304 posts
Posted on 6/18/14 at 8:50 pm to
No.. It means he hasn't touched first base yet. The team that "appeals" throws the ball to first base and if the runner missed the bag then he's called out.

But on the other hand, why should the run be counted if the runner failed to touch all bases?
Posted by PurpleAndGold86
Member since Jun 2012
11036 posts
Posted on 6/18/14 at 8:57 pm to
Nope. You could run straight up the middle they the pitchers mound straight to second base and if the other team doesn't see it you would be safe at second. Touching a base without touching the preceding base does not automatically make a runner out.
Posted by PurpleAndGold86
Member since Jun 2012
11036 posts
Posted on 6/18/14 at 9:00 pm to
What you said makes sense, but no. The runner hasn't technically passed the other runner because if the ball wasn't thrown to that base in an attempt to get the runner out, he is still going to be safe

Now to really throw you off. If a runner on first breaks on the pitch and a ball is hit in the air and the runner on first has touched second base he must return to first obviously right? Well if he has touched second he must retouch second on the way back to first. If he does not he is automatically out.
Posted by SaintCajun
Pacific Northwest
Member since Apr 2012
4294 posts
Posted on 6/18/14 at 9:00 pm to
quote:

You could run straight up the middle they the pitchers mound straight to second base and if the other team doesn't see it you would be safe at second.

Something similar to that. I've seen teams come out of offensive/defensive timeouts and have a runner that was on 2nd just hang out on 3rd in hopes nobody caught it.
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