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Football rules question re: dead ball fouls
Posted on 11/28/11 at 10:13 pm
Posted on 11/28/11 at 10:13 pm
When a player commits an dead ball personal foul after a 1st down is gained, they seem to mark off 15 yards, and the offense plays a 1st and 10. However, if a player commits the same penalty after gaining 9 yards on 1st and 10, they mark off 15 yards and play 2nd and 16. It seems like it would be more fair to make it 1st and 25 if a dead ball foul occurs after a 1st down is achieved. Any reason for this that any of you who might have some officiating experience can shed some light on?
1
Posted on 11/28/11 at 10:41 pm to medtiger
Simple, the foul occurred AFTER the first down was made. There is really no more clear way to explain it.
The hay is in the barn, the first down was made. That play is over, but the chains haven't moved and the ball isn't yet spotted.
The hay is in the barn, the first down was made. That play is over, but the chains haven't moved and the ball isn't yet spotted.
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