union is still negotiating on behalf of the worker who no longer has to join their union (and pay union dues) - so he is obtaining the "benefit" of the union w/o paying dues.
Indirectly and not by choice.
It is the Union and Union members that are choosing to engage and negotiate with the employer. They are the ones making the choice. You can't blame someone who indirectly benefits from an unconsented to action.
Think of it in these terms. There are five houses on a street. Three of the homeowners decide to hire a lawn service to cut all five lawns because the price is cheaper than if they did it individually. After a few months, they approach one of the other homeowners and tell them that it's not fair that he isn't paying for his lawn to be cut. This homeowner says that he'd rather cut his own grass than pay someone else and he never consented to the three contracting with the lawn service on his behalf.
Would we say that this homeowner is freeloading on the other three? Should we force him to pay?
Of course not. frick Unions.
This post was edited on 12/13 at 9:09 am