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re: SCOTUS isn’t going to mess with immunity

Posted on 4/26/24 at 2:07 pm to
Posted by Robin Masters
Birmingham
Member since Jul 2010
29942 posts
Posted on 4/26/24 at 2:07 pm to
quote:

When do they define "the party eligible for indictment" or discuss eligibility specifically?


When they qualified the party as being convicted jfc.

No other reason to define them as such.

As written it makes perfect sense. Your interpretation requires inference upon inference and suggests they are clarifying concepts they don’t even name specifically or implicitly.

This post was edited on 4/26/24 at 2:08 pm
Posted by SlowFlowPro
Simple Solutions to Complex Probs
Member since Jan 2004
423162 posts
Posted on 4/26/24 at 2:11 pm to
quote:

When they qualified

You are going around in a loop, at this point.

quote:

Your interpretation requires inference upon inference

Says the guy who can't find language and uses this:

quote:

No other reason to define them as such.


as the backbone to his argument.

My argument is purely based on the words. There are no words in that clause creating any association/requirement between the 2 processes.

There are words specifically separating the 2 processes.

I'll give you ONE more chance

quote:

What specific language makes a Senate "conviction" a requirement to future prosecution?


I highlighted the part you've failed to respond with, previously.

*ETA: I'll add again

quote:

How was Hastings removed by the Senate AFTER he was acquitted in criminal court, if your stance is that a conviction by the Senate is required first prior to criminal prosecution?
This post was edited on 4/26/24 at 2:12 pm
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